Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (2024)

Physics-Section-A

1.

A car accelerates from rest at aconstant rate α for some time afterwhich it decelerates at a constant rateβ to come to rest. If the total timeelapsed is t, the distance travelled bythe car is:
1.12αβα+βt2
2.12α+βαβt2
3.12α2+β2αβt2
4.12α2-β2αβt2

2.

A ball is projected with velocity v0 at an angle of elevation 30°. Mark the correct statement.
(1) Kinetic energy will be zero at the highest point of the trajectory.
(2) Vertical component of momentum will be conserved.
(3) Horizontal component of momentum will be conserved.
(4) Gravitational potential energy will be minimum at the highest point of the trajectory.

3.

Drops of water fall from the roof of abuilding 20 m high at regular intervals
of time. The first drop reaching theground at the same instant fifth drop
starts its fall. What are the distance ofsecond and third drops from roof? (g =
10 m/s2)
1. 5.0 m and 1.25 m
2. 5.0 m and 2.25 m
3. 11.25 m and 5.0 m
4. 11.25 and 1.25 m

4.

A particle moves so that its position vector is given by \(r=\cos \omega t \hat{x}+\sin \omega t \hat{y}\)where\(\omega\)is a constant. Based on the information given, which of the following is true?

1.Velocity and acceleration, both are parallel to \(r\).
2.Velocity is perpendicular to \(r\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
3.Velocity is not perpendicular to \(r\) and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
4.Velocity and acceleration, both are perpendicular to \(r\).

5.

A particle is dropped vertically from restfrom a height. The time taken by it to
fall through successive distances of 1 mwill the be

(1) All equal, being equal to 2/g second
(2) In the ratio of the square roots of integers 1,2,3....
(3) In the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers i.e. 1, 2-1,3-2,4-3
(4) In the ratio of the reciprocal of the square roots of the integers, i.e., 11,12,13,14

6.

A man can row a boat with a speed of \(10\) kmphin still water. The river flows at \(6\) kmph. If he crosses the river from one bank to the other along the shortest possible path, time taken to cross the river of width \(1\) km is:
1.\(\frac{1}{8}~\text{h}\)
2.\(\frac{1}{4}~\text{h}\)
3.\(\frac{1}{2}~\text{h}\)
4.\(1~\text{h}\)

7.

A man wants to cross a river 600 m wide flowingat 8 m/s in the shortest time. Man has a speed of 6 m/ s in still water. What is the path length covered by the man in the river?
1. Infinite
2. 1 km
3. 100 m
4. 1000 cm

8.

A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of5 m/s and takes t1andt2, time to cross a river in the shortest time and shortest path respectively. If the speed of the river increases, the time is taken to cross the river in the shortest time and the shortest path be t'1andt'2 respectively. Then
1.t1<t1',t2<t2'
2.t1>t1',t2>t2'
3.t1=t1',t2<t2'
4.t1=t1',t2>t2'

9.

A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of 100m height. Simultaneously another ball is thrown upwards from the bottom of the tower with a speed of 50 m/s (g=10m/s2). They will cross each other after:
1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 3 s
4. 4 s

10.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion(A):Uniform circular motion is an unacceleratedmotion.
Reason(R):Velocity remains constant in a uniform circularmotion.
1.Both(A)and(R)are true and(R)is the correct explanation of(A).
2.Both(A)and(R)are true but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A).
3.(A)is true but(R)is false.
4.Both(A)and(R)are false.

11.

A ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10 km h-1 and a ship B, 100 km south of A is moving northwards with a speed of 10 km h-1. The time after which the distance between them becomes the shortest, is:
1. 5 hr
2.52hr
3.102hr
4. 0 hr

12.

In a projectile motion, velocity at maximum height is
(1) ucosθ2
(2) ucosθ
(3) usinθ2
(4) None of these

13.

A ball is projected at a certain angle with initial velocity \(u\). It covers horizontal range \(R\). With what initial velocity it should be projected keeping the angle of projection the same so that its horizontal range becomes \(2.25R\)?

1.\(2.5u\)2.\(1.5u\)
3.\(2.25u\)4.\(0.25u\)

14.

The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance covered s as k =as2where a is a constant. The force acting on the particle is
1.2as2R
2.2as1+s2R21/2
3. 2as
4.2aR2s

15.

A particle is moving 30° north of east with speed6 m/s. After 3 s the particle is found to be moving along north at the same speed. The magnitude of average acceleration in this interval of time is
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (1)
(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) Zero
(4) 2 m/s2

16.

The angular speed of a flywheel making 120 revolutions/minute is:
(1) 2π  rad/s
(2) 4π2  rad/s
(3) π  rad/s
(4) 4π  rad/s

17.

A particle starts moving with constant accelerationwith initial velocity(\(\hat{\mathrm{i}}+5\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)) m/s. After \(4\) seconds, its velocity becomes (\(3\hat{\mathrm{i}}-2\hat{\mathrm{j}}\)) m/s. The magnitude of its displacement in 4 seconds is:
1. \(5\) m
2. \(10\) m
3. \(15\) m
4. \(20\) m

18.

A car is moving on a circular track at a speed of20 m/s having a radius of 100 m. If it starts decelerating uniformly at the rate of 3m/s2, the angle made by the resultant acceleration with the direction of its instantaneous velocity is:
(1) 37°
(2) 127°
(3) 53°
(4) 143°

19.

Two projectiles P and Q are projected with the samespeed at angles 60° and 30° with horizontal on level ground, then: [R = Range, T = Time of flight, H = Maximum height]
(1)RP=2RQ
(2) TP=3TQ
(3) H=3HP
(4) All of these

20.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.The average speed of a particle in a given timeinterval cannot be less than the magnitude of theaverage velocity.
2.It is possible to have a situation\(\left|\frac{d\overrightarrow {v}}{dt}\right|\neq0\)but\(\frac{d\left|\overrightarrow{v}\right|}{dt}=0\)
3.The average velocity of a particle is zero in atime interval. It is possible that instantaneousvelocity is never zero in that interval.
4.It is possible to have a situation in which\(\left|\frac{d\overrightarrow{v}}{dt}\right|=0\)but\(\frac{d\left|\overrightarrow{v}\right|}{dt}\neq0\)

21.

A helicopter flies from a city A to B. The line joiningA and B is along North-South direction and its length is 100 km. The speed of the helicopter is kept 100 km/h and the wind blows from West to East with a speed of 60 km/h. The time taken by the helicopter is
(1) 0.75 h
(2) 1.0 h
(3) 1.25 h
(4) 1.33 h

22.

A projectile is thrown with speed 50 m/s at anangle 53° with the horizontal. Taking horizontal as x-axis and vertical as y-axis, the equation of trajectory of the projectile is
(1) 180y = 140x - x2
(2) 180y = 240x - x2
(3) 180y = 90x - 2x2
(4) 180y = 80x - 3x2

23.

The gravity in space is given byg=-10j^ms-2. Two particles are simultaneously projected with velocityu1=10ms-1i^+10ms-1j^andu2=20ms-1i^+10ms-1j^. Then, the ratio of their times of flight
1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 2:1
4. none

24.

If a particle is moving in a circular orbit with constantspeed, then:

1.its velocity is variable.
2.its acceleration is variable.
3.its angular momentum is constant.
4.All of the above

25.

Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (2)
Time taken by the projectile to reach from P to Q is t, then PQ ?
1. 2ut
2.3ut
3.32ut
4.ut3

26.

A projectile is thrown with velocity v at an angleθwith the horizontal. When the projectile is at a height equal to half of the maximum height,
The vertical component of the velocity of the projectile is
1.3vsinθ
2.vsinθ
3.vsinθ2
4.vsinθ3

27.

A particle moves in space such that:
\(x=2t^3+3t+4;~y=t^2+4t-1;~z=2\sin\pi t\)
where \(x,~y,~z\) are measured in meters and \(t\) in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at \(t=3\) seconds will be:

1.\(36 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+\hat{k} \)ms-2
2.\(36 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+\pi \hat{k} \)ms-2
3.\(36 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j} \)ms-2
4.\(12 \hat{i}+2 \hat{j} \)ms-2

28.

Rain is falling vertically downwards with a speed of \(4\)kmh-1. A girl moves a straight road with a velocity of\(3\)kmh-1 . The apparent velocity of rain with respect to the girl is:
1.\(3\)kmh-1
2.\(4\)kmh-1
3.\(5\)kmh-1
4.\(7\)kmh-1

29.

A particle of mass m is rotating in a horizontal circle of radius R and is attached to a hanging mass M as shown in the figure. The speed of rotation required by the mass m keep M steady is
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (3)
1.mgRM
2.MgRm
3.mgMR
4.mRMg

30.

A particle is thrown from the ground with a speed u atan angleθ above the horizontal. The rate of change of velocity of the particle at the highest point of the path is:
1. gsinθ
2. gcosθ
3. g
4. Zero

31.

Which of the following sets of factors will affect the horizontal distance covered by an athlete in a long–jump event?
1. speed before he jumps and his weight
2. the direction in which he leaps and the initial speed
3. the force with which he pushes the ground and his speed
4. none of the above

32.

A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g=10m/s2, the range of the missile is:
1. 50 m 2. 60 m
3. 20 m 4. 40 m

33.

A ball rolls off top of a staircase with a horizontal velocity um/s. If the steps are h metre high and b mere wide, the ball will just hit the edge of nth step if n equals to
1.hu2gb2
2.u28gb2
3.2hu2gb2
4.2u2ghb2

34.

A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point 'C' starting from 'A'. He swims with a speed of 5 km/hr, at an angleθwith respect to the river. If AB=BC=400m. Then-
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (4)
1. The time taken by the man is 12 min
2. The time taken by the man is 8 min
3. The value ofθis 45°
4. The value ofθis 53°

35.

Two projectiles are thrown horizontally from a highcliff in the opposite direction with the same speed 20 m/ s simultaneously. At what time velocities of both particles become perpendicular?
(1) 22s
(2) 2 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 42s

Physics-Section-B

36.

The \(x\) and \(y\) coordinates of the particle at any time are\(x = 5t-2t^2\) and \(y=10t\) respectively, where \(x\) and \(y\) are in metres and \(t\) is in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at \(t=2\)s is:

1.\(0\)2.\(5\)m/s2
3.\(-4\)m/s24.\(-8\)m/s2

37.

Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from the rooftops of two buildings (building being \(100~\text{m}\) apart and being of the same height of \(200~\text{m}\)) with the same velocity of \(25~\text{m/s}\). When and where will the two bullets collide? \(\left(g = 10~\text{m/s}^2 \right)\)

1.after \(2~\text{s}\) at a height of \(180~\text{m}\)
2.after \(2~\text{s}\) at a height of \(20~\text{m}\)
3.after \(4~\text{s}\) at a height of \(120~\text{m}\)
4.they will not collide.

38.

Certain neutron stars are believed to be rotating at about 1 rev/sec. If such a star has a radius of 20 km, the acceleration of an object on the equator of the star will be
(1) 20×108m/sec2
(2) 8×105m/sec2
(3) 120×105m/sec2
(4) 4×108m/sec2

39.

A vector \(\vec{a}\)is turned without a change in its length through a small angle\(d\theta\). The values of\(\left | \Delta \vec{a} \right |\)and \(\Delta a\) are respectively:
1.\(0,\)\(ad\theta\)
2.\(ad\theta,\)\(0\)
3.\(0,\)\(0\)
4. none of these

40.

A cart is moving with speed of 20m/s on a horizontal track. A body is projected with speed 40m/s (relative to cart ) from the cart in such a way that path of body appear to be straight line for an observer on ground. Time for which body remains in air is:
1.23sec
2.4sec
3.43sec
4.8sec

41.

An aeroplane flies \(400\) m north and then \(300\) mwest and then flies \(1200\) m upwards. Its net displacement is:

1.\(1200\) m2.\(1300\) m
3.\(1400\) m4.\(1500\) m

42.

A thief is running away on a straight road in a jeep moving with a speed of 9 m/s. A police man chases him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous separation of jeep from the motor cycle is 100 m, how long will it take for the policemen to catch the thief
(1) 1 second
(2) 19 second
(3) 90 second
(4) 100 second

43.

A particle is moving along the path y = x2from x = 0 m to x = 2 m. Then the distance traveled by the particle is:
1. 4 m
2.20m
3.>20m
4.<20m

44.

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : Rocket in flight is not an illustration of projectile.
Reason : Rocket takes flight due to combustion of fuel and does not move under the gravity effect alone.

45.

A stone is just released from the window of a train moving along a horizontal straight track. The stone will hit the ground following
(1) Straight path
(2) Circular path
(3) Parabolic path
(4) Hyperbolic path

46.

Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in timet2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
(1)t1-t22
(2)t1t2t2-t1
(3)t1t2t2+t1
(4)t1-t2

47.

A projectile thrown at an angle 30° with horizontalfrom the level ground reaches a maximum height of 20 m. What will be the maximum height if it is thrown at an angle 60° with the same speed?
(1) 20 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 60 m

48.

Path of a projectile as seen from another projectile :
(1) Straight
(2) Circular
(3) Hyperbolic
(4) Parabolic

49.

A particle is moving on a circular path of radius1 m with a speed of 10 m/s. The magnitude of change in its velocity in the interval it subtends an angle 60° at the center is:
1. 10 m/s
2. 20 m/s
3.202m/s
4. Zero

50.

The trajectory of a particle in a vertical plane isy=ax-bx2, where a and b are constants and x and y are respective horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of projection. The maximum height attained by the particle and the angle of projection from the horizontal
1.b22a'tan-1b
2.a2b'tan-12b
3.a24b'tan-1a
4.2a2b'tan-1a

Chemistry-Section-A

51.

Breakfast cereal is advertised to contain 110 mg of sodium/ 100 grams of cereal. The percent of sodium in the cereal is
(1) 0.110%
(2) 0.0110 %
(3) 11.0%
(4) 0.22 %

52.

The amount of Zinc (atomic weight=65) necessary to produce 224 mL of H2(at STP) by the reaction with dilute sulphuric acid will be:

1.0.65 g2.7.6 g
3.6.5 g4.8.5 g

53.

Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

1.Molarity2.Mole fraction
3.Weight percentage4.Molality

54.

Cisplatin, an anticancer drug, has the molecular formulaPtNH32Cl2. What is the mass (in gram) of one molecule? (Atomic weights : Pt=195, H=1.0, N=14, Cl=35.5)
1.4.98×10-21
2.4.98×10-22
3.6.55×10-21
4.3.85×10-22

55.

How much oxygen gas (O2) at standard temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atm) is required to completely combust 1 liter of propane gas (C3H8) under the same conditions?
1. 7L
2. 6L
3. 5L
4. 10L

56.

60 mL of a mixture of nitrous oxide and nitric oxide was exploded with excess of hydrogen. If 38 mL ofN2was formed, calculate the volume of each gas in the mixture. All measurements are made at constant P and T.
1.20 ml +30 ml
2. 44 ml + 16 ml
3. 10 ml+40 ml
4 .25 ml +25 ml

57.

Vapour density of a volatile substance is 4CH4=1. Its molar mass would be:
1. 8
2. 2
3. 64
4. 128

58.

Average atomic mass of magnesium is 24.31 a.m.u. This magnesium is compared of 79 mole % ofMg24and remaining 21 mole % ofMg25andMg26. Calculate mole of % ofMg26.
1. 10
2. 11
3. 15
4. 16

59.

The mass of CO2 that shall be obtained by heating 10 kg of 80 % pure limestone (CaCO3) is:
1. 4.4 kg
2. 6.6 kg
3. 3.52 kg
4. 8.8 kg

60.

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. 1 mole of electrons weights 5.4 mg
2. 1 mole of electrons weights 5.4 kg
3. 1 mole of electrons weights 0.54 mg
4. 1 mole of electrons has 1.6×10-19 C of charge

61.

Which of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules:-
(1) 16g of O2 and 14g of N2
(2)8g of O2 and 22g of CO2
(3) 28g of N2 and 22g of CO2
(4) 32g of O2 and 32g of N2

62.

On reduction with CO, 200 kg of iron ore (Fe2O3) containing 20% impurities gives iron. The amount of iron produced will be-
1. 84 kg
2. 200 kg
3. 56 kg
4. 112 kg

63.

TheNH3evolved due to complete conversion of N from 1.12 g sample of protein was absorbed in 45 mL of 0.4 NHNO3. The excess acid required 20 mL of 0.1 NNaOH. The % N in the sample is:
1. 8
2. 16
3. 20
4. 25

64.

What is the volume (in litres) of oxygen at STP required for complete combustion of 32 g of CH4
(1) 44.8
(2) 89.6
(3) 22.4
(4) 179.2

65.

How many moles of KMnO4 are needed to oxidize a mixture of 1 mole of each FeSO4 & FeC2O4 in acidic medium
1.45
2.54
3.34
4.53

66.

The maximum volume at STP is occupied by
1. 12.8g ofSO2
2.6.02×1022moleculesofCH4
3. 0.5 mol ofNO2
4. 1 gm-molecule ofCO2

67.

At standard temperature and pressure (STP), the volume of oxygen required to completely combust 30 ml of acetylene under similar conditions is:
1. 100 ml
2. 75 ml
3. 50 ml
4. 25 ml

68.

1.44 gram of titanium (At. wt. =48) reacted with excess ofO2and produce x gram of non-stoichiometric compoundTi1.44O.The value of x is:
1. 2
2. 1.77
3. 1.44
4. None of the above

69.

Calculate the % of freeSO3in oleum (a solution of SO3in H2SO4) that is labelled 109%H2SO4.
1. 40
2. 30
3. 50
4. None

70.

The number of water molecules is maximum in -
1. 18 molecules of water
2. 1.8 g of water
3. 18 g of water
4. 18 moles of water

71.

The number of moles of BaCO3 which contains 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is:
1. 0.5
2. 1
3. 3
4. 6.02 ×1023

72.

Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order of increasing masses:
(I) 0.5 mole of O3
(II) 0.5 gm atom of oxygen
(III) 3.011×1023 molecules ofO2
(IV) 5.6 liter of CO2 at STP

1.II<IV<III<I2.II<I<IV<III
3.IV<II<III<I4.I<II<III<IV

73.

The volume of oxygen gas (O2) needed to completelyburn 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) (both O2& propane measured at 0°C and 1 atm) will be:
1. 7 L
2. 6 L
3. 5 L
4. 10 L

74.

100 mL of 10% NaOH (w/V) is added to 100 mL of 10% HCl (w/V). The resultant solution becomes:
1. alkaline
2. strongly alkaline
3. acidic
4. neutral

75.

When a mixture containing HCl and H2SO4 weighing 0.1 g undergoes treatment with an excess of AgNO3 solution, resulting in the formation of 0.1435 g of AgCl, what is the weight percentage of H2SO4 in the mixture?
1. 36.5
2. 63.5
3. 50
4. None of the above

76.

The weight of a molecule of the compoundC60H122 is –
1. 1.4 × 10-21 g
2. 1.09 × 10-21 g
3. 5.025 × 1023 g
4. 16.023 × 1023 g

77.

0.607 g of a silver salt of tribasic organic acid was quantitatively reduced to 0.37 g of pure Ag. What is the mol. wt. of the acid?
1. 207 g
2. 210 g
3. 531 g
4. 324g

78.

Consider the given reaction, 2SO2 + O22SO3
6.4 g SO2and 3.2 g O2 to form SO3. The mass of SO3formed is:
1. 32 g
2. 16 g
3. 8 g
4. 4 g

79.

A metal M forms the sulphateM2SO43. A 0.596 gram sample of the sulphate reacts with excessBaCl2to give 1.220 gBaSO4. What is the atomic weight of M? (Atomic weights : S=32, Ba=137.3)
1. 26.9
2. 69.7
3. 55.8
4. 23

80.

The total number of electrons present in 1.6 gm. of methane is [IIT 1976; Roorkee 1985; CPMT 1987, 92]
(1) 6.02 × 1023
(2) 6.02 × 1022
(3) 6.02 × 1021
(4) 4.02 × 1020

81.

What volume of H2 is liberated under similar conditions which released 2.24 dm3 O2 by electrolysis of water?
(1) 2.24 dm3
(2) 1.12 dm3
(3) 4.48 dm3
(4) 0.56 dm3

82.

A sample of pure compound is found to have Na = 0.0887 mole, O = 0.132 mole, C = 2.65 × 1022 atoms.
The empirical formula of the compound is
(1) Na2CO3
(2) Na3O2C5
(3) Na0.088700.132C2.65×1022
(4) NaCO

83.

The molarity of a H2SO4solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at35°Cand contains 98% H2SO4by weight is:
1. 1.84 M
2. 81.4 M
3. 18.4 M
4. 184 M

84.

The haemoglobin from the red blood corpuscles contains approximately 0.33% iron
by mass. The molar mass of haemoglobin is 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule of haemoglobin is :
(atomic mass of iron=56):

1.2
2.3
3.4
4.5

85.

What is the number of moles of O-atom in 126 amu ofHNO3:
1.2
2.2NA
3.6
4.6NA

Chemistry-Section-B

86.

The percentage of oxygen present in the compoundCaCO3.3Ca3PO42is-
1. 23.3%
2. 45.36%
3. 41.94%
4. 17.08%

87.

At STP, the density of CCl4 vapour in g/L will be closest to:
1. 8.67
2. 6.87
3. 3.67
4. 4.26

88.

The number of valence electrons present in 0.53 grams of Na2CO3is:
1.3.01×1023
2.7.22×1022
3.12.046×1023
4.6.023×1023

89.

What is the approximate number of atoms present in 4.25 grams of NH3?
1. 4 x 1023
2. 2x 1023
3. 1x 1023
4. 6x 1023

90.

Calculate number of electrons present in 9.5 g ofPO43-:
1.6
2.5NA
3.0.1NA
4.4.7NA

91.

A gaseous mixture ofH2andCO2gas contains 66 mass % ofCO2. The vapour density of the mixture is:
1. 6.1
2. 5.4
3. 2.7
4. 10.8

92.

If 0.50 mole of BaCl2is mixed with 0.20 mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2that can be formed is:
1. 0.10
2. 0.20
3. 0.30
4. 0.40

93.

A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The formula of the metal sulfate is:
1. M2SO4
2. MSO4
3. M(SO4)2
4. M2(SO4)3

94.

1 gm butane(C4H10)is burnt with excess ofO2to formCO2. The approximate mass ofCO2produced is
1. 1gm
2. 2gm
3. 3gm
4. 4gm

95.

How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5g of PbO and 3.2g of HCl?
(1) 0.044
(2) 0.333
(3) 0.011
(4) 0.029

96.

What is the mass % of a solute in the solution obtained by dissolving 8 g of solute in 60 g of water?
1. 4.57%
2. 9.1%
3. 11.76%
4. 12.78%

97.

A sample ofCaCO3andMgCO3weighed 2.21 g is ignited to constant mass of 1.152 g. What is the composition of mixture? Also calculate the volume ofCO2evolved at0°Cand 76 cm of pressure.
1.640 ml
2.540 ml
3.500 ml
4.600 ml

98.

A purified pepsin was subjected to amino acid analysis. The amino acid present in the smallest amount was lysine, C6H14N2O2and the amount of lysine was found to be 0.431g per 100 g of protein. The minimum molecular mass of protein is
1. 34 u
2. 3400 u
3. 34,000 u
4. 3,400,000 u

99.

If the Avogadro number NA, is changed from 6.022 x 1023 mol-1 to 6.022 x 1020 mol-1 this would change:
1. The definition of mass in units of grams.
2. The mass of one mole of carbon.
3. The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation.
4. The ratio of elements to each other in a compound.

100.

6.02x1020 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of the solution is:

1.0.02M2.0.01M
3.0.001M4.0.1M

Biology-I-Section-A

101.

The division time for the human cell is
1. 24 hr
2. 1 hr
3. 23 hr
4. 90 minutes

102.

The asexual spores are generally not found in –
a. Phycomycetes
b. Ascomycetes
c. Basidiomycetes
d. Deuteromycetes

103.

Select odd one with respect to Basidiomycetes
1. Mushroom
2. Smut
3. Rust
4. Morels

104.

Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?
(1) M-phase
(2) Interphase
(3) Leptotene
(4) S-phase

105.

The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the

1. Ending of the second phase(stage) of mitosis

2. Start of the second phase(stage) of mitosis

3. Metaphase

4. Both B and C

106. With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

1.Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope takes place.
2.Chromosomes are highly condensed.
3.Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere.
4.Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell.

107.

Identify the cell organelles labelled as A, B, C and D. Mark the correct option with respect to organelle and its function.
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (5)
1. A - Major site for synthesis of lipid.
2. B - Performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered to only intracellular targets.
3. C - Sites of anaerobic respiration.
4. D - Main arena of cellular activities

108.

The process of distribution of duplicated DNA in the daughter cells is

1. Easy process

2. A complex series of events

3. A single complex process

4. Easiest process in all the events bof cell cycle.

109.

Find out the incorrect statement

1.Middle lamella is mainly made up of Ca-pectate
2.Cell wall is formed from inner side therefore secondary wall formed before primary wall
3.Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring cells together
4.Pits are present in secondary wall

110. Kingdom Protista has brought together Chlamydomonas, Chlorella with Paramoecium and Amoeba. On what basis were these organisms separated under previous classification systems?
1. Cell wall
2. Cell type
3. Body organisation
4. Mode of nutrition

111.

In five kingdom classification, which single kingdom contains blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi

112.

Albugo candida and Mucor are similar in having
1. Hemicellulosic cell wall
2. Peptidoglycan in cell wall
3. Gametangial contact
4. Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium

113. Given below are two statements:

Assertion(A):Cell wall is generally absent in plant cell
Reason(R):Animal cells are rigid as covered by a cell wall.
1.Both(A)and(R)are true and(R)is the correct explanation of(A).
2.Both(A)and(R)are true but(R)is not the correct explanation of(A).
3.(A)is true but(R)is false.
4.Both(A)and(R)are false.

114.

When synapsis is complete all along the chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a stage called
(1) Zygotene
(2) pachytene
(3) diplotene
(4) diakinesis.

115.

Identify the exogenous spore?
1. Zoospore
2. Basidiospore
3. Aplanospore
4. Ascospore

116.

Which of the following is true about Inclusion bodies
(1)membraneless
(2)present freely in cytoplasm
(3)store phosphate,glycogen
(4)All of the above

117.

Which of the following is not a microtubular organelle?

(1) Centriole
(2) Cilia
(3) Basal body
(4) Dalton complex

118.

The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis?
1. Pachytene
2. Zygotene
3. Diptotene
4. Diakinesis

119.

The plane of alignment of chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as
1. Metaphase line
2. Metaphase plate
3. Metaphase area
4. Metaphase shape

120. The mineral present in cell wall is
1. Na
2. Ca
3. K
4. Mg

121.

The common characteristic showning by mushroom, smut and rust
(1) is characterised by presence of basidiocarps
(2) is characterised by presence of ascocarps
(3) all are pathogen
(4) all are saprophytic in nature

122.

Identify the correct labellings.
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (6)
a. A- head, B- Collar, C- Sheath, D- Tail
b. A- head, B- Collar, C- Neck, D- Tail fibre
c. A- head, B- Collar, C- Sheath, D- Tail fibre
d. A- head, B- Neck, C- Sheath, D- Tail fibre

123.

Select the correct statement with respect to monera
1. All unicellular and Gram-negative
2. Very simple in behavior
3. Show the most extensive metabolic diversity
4. Show intracellular transport by cyclosis

124.

Bivalent is equivalent to

1.4 chromatids

2.8 chromatids

3.2 chromatids

4.1 chromatids

125.

Meiosis involves
1. two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions
2. two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division
3. one nuclear division and one chromosome division
4. one nuclear division and two chromosome divisions

126.

Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ?
(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Blue-green algae
(4) Saprophytic fungi

127.

Specific proteins responsible for the flow of materials and information into the cell are called
(1) membrane receptors
(2) carrier proteins
(3) integral proteins
(4) none of these

128.

Deuteromycetes are known as ‘imperfect fungi’ because –
a. Only the sexual phases of these fungi are known.
b. Because they do not have true cell wall
c. Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known.
d. They do not show typical fungal characteristics.

129.

Satellite body is formed in chromosome because of
(1)primary constriction
(2)secondary constriction
(3)Centromere
(4)Both A and C

130.

The exchange of segments of non-sister chromatids between chromosomes of a hom*ologous pair termed as
(1) transformation
(2) translocation
(3) crossing over
(4) chromosomal aberration

131.

Synaptonemal complex is more conspicious at:
(1) Zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

132. Golgi apparatus is closely associated with ER in:
1. Structural as well as functional aspects
2. Structural aspects only
3. Functional aspects only
4. Metabolism and biochemistry

133. Which is the correct sequence of modification and transport of secretory vesicles?

1.RER→cell membrane→ secretory vesicles→Golgi body
2.RER→secretory vesicles →Golgi body →cell membrane
3.RER→Golgi body→secretory vesicles→cell membrane
4.SER→Golgi body →cell membrane →secretory vesicles

134.

The common feature of mitochondria and plastids
(1) both are double membranous cell organelles
(2)Both contains 70s ribosomes
(3)both have dsDNA
(4)All of the above

135.

Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched with all the characters given below:

1.Phycomycetes:Mycelium – aseptate and coenocytic / Asexual reproduction by motile zoospores or by nonmotile aplanospores / spores – endogenously produced in the sporangium
2.Ascomycetes:Mycelium – unbranched and septate / Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia produced endogenously on conidiophores.
3.Basidiomycetes:Mycelium–branched and septate / Asexual spores are generally not found.
4.Deuteromycetes:Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known.

Biology-I-Section-B

136.

Cytoskeleton comprises of
(1)Microtubule
(2)Microfilament
(3)Intermediate filament
(4)All of the these

137.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement
regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of
peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

138.

Identify the correct statement with regard toG1phase (Gap 1) of interphase:

1.The reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
2.The cell is metabolically activeand grows but does not replicate its DNA
3.Nuclear division takes place
4.DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

139. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In mitosis, chromosomal number in the progeny as well as in parents remains the same
Statement II: Mitosis takes place in gametes
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Both statement I and statement II are correct
2. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

140.

A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has
1. Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
2. Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
3. Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
4. Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

141. Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (7)
Above diagram represents:
1. Metaphase-I
2. Anaphase-I
3. Metaphase-II
4. Anaphase-II

142.

The guts of a cow and a buffalo possess:
1. Fucus sp
2. Chlorella sp
3. methanogens
4. cyanobacteria

143.

Which of the following is not a bacterial disease

(1) Citrus canker
(2) Cholera
(3) Plague
(4) Mumps

144.

Cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called

(1) G2 phase
(2) G0 stage
(3) S-phase
(4) M-phase

145.

Which pair belongs to basidiomycetes?
1. Puffball and Claviceps
2. Peziza and Stink Horn
3. Morchella and Mushroom
4. Bird Nest Fungus and Puffball

146.

The functions of mesosomes include all the following except:
1. DNA replication
2. Cell wall formation
3. Respiration
4. Photosynthesis

147. Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-IColumn-II
a.Golgi apparatus(i)Site for synthesis of lipids
b.SER(ii)Formation of glycolipids
c.Mitochondria(iii)Maintenance of shape of cell
d.Cytoskeleton(iv)Produce cellular energy in form of ATP

1. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
2. a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
3. a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
4. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

148.

Creutzfeldt Jacob disease in humans is caused by
1. Virions
2. Viroids
3. Prions
4. Virusoids

149.

Peroxisome is a type of
(1)vacuole
(2)inclusion bodies
(3)microbodies
(4)membraneless organelle

150.

Which one of the following also act as a ribozyme in a bacterial cell?
1. snRNA
2. hn RNA
3. 23 S rRNA
4. 5 S rRNA

Biology-II-Section-A

151. All the following statements regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy are correct except:

1.It accounts for about 1/5th of the total number of pregnancies conceived in a year
2.It was legalized by the Government of India in 1975
3.It is considered safe during the first trimester of pregnancy
4.It is legalized induced abortion

152.

In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. It is used for prenatal sex determination
2. It can be used for detection of down syndrome
3. It can be used for detection of cleft palate
4. it is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant

153. Rashmi had a sexual encounter with an unknown partner, without any protection. In a few days she develops itching, fluid
discharge and swelling in the genital region. In spite of the discomfort she does not go to the doctor. What is the most probable reason for this and what kind of complications can this infection
lead to? Choose the appropriate option.
1. Afraid of social stigma; ectopic pregnancies, still birth or infertility
2. Afraid of social stigma; malaria, filariasis or chikungunya
3. Unafraid of social stigma; syphilis, gonorrhea or genital herpes
4. Unafraid of social stigma; abortions, ascariasis, or taeniasis

154.

Which of the following statements are true with respect to polar body?
1. Non functional by-products of oogenesis
2. First polar body is formed during the reductional division of the primary oocyte
3. Second polar body is formed during unequal division of the secondary oocyte
4. All of these

155. Signals for parturition originate from
1. Foetal oxytocin
2. Placenta and fully developed foetus
3. Decrease in estrogen to progesterone ratio
4. Hormone released from pineal gland

156.

Lactation starts at

(1) At the end of pregnancy
(2) At the end of first trimester
(3) During pregnancy
(4) Before parturition

157. A lady is diagnosed with complete blockage of her fallopian tubes. Which of the following ARTs can help her to conceive a child?
1. GIFT
2. ZIFT
3. AI
4. IUT

158.

What is the method called where the male withdraws his penis just before ejacul*tion?
1. Coitus interruptus
2. Lactational amenorrhoea
3. Withdrawal
4. Both (1) and (3)

159.

The corpus luteum produces _______________, which inhibits ovulation.
1. LH
2. FSH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone

160.

Infertility due to very low sperm count in the ejacul*tes should opt for which of the following assisted reproductive technologies ?
1. GIFT
2. IUI
3. Testicular sperm extraction
4. Microsurgical epidymal sperm aspiration

161.

What is the full form of RCH?
(1) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(2) Reproduction, Contraception and Health
(3) Reproduction and Child Health
(4) None of these

162. Thick coat of zona pellucida surrounding the secondary oocyte is composed of
1. Nucleoproteins
2. Phosphoproteins
3. Glycoproteins
4. Lipoproteins

163.

Condoms:
(1) Increase sperm phagocytosis
(2) Decrease sperm motility
(3) Prevent the ejacul*ted sem*n from entering the female reproductive tract
(4) Inhibit ovulation

164.

The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been
correctly identified?
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (8)
1. C-lnfundibulum, D-Fimbriae, E-Cervix
2. D-Oviducal funnel, E-Uterus, F-Cervix
3. A-Perimetrium, B-Myometxium, C-Fallopian tube
4. B-Endometrium, C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae

165.

Which of the following is not a part of female external
genitalia?
1. Birth canal
2. Hymen
3. cl*tor*s
4. Labia minora

166.

Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation ?
1. Estrogen
2. FSH
3. FSH-RH
4. Progesterone

167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. population explosion
1. In 1947, Indian population was approximately 350 million
2. According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was still around 0.7%
3. In May 2000, population in India crossed 1 billion
4. In 2000, world population reached closed to 6 billion

168.

Condoms are barriers that cover:
(1) Penis in male and ovary in female
(2) Penis in male and cervix and vagin* in female
(3) Scrotum in male and cervix and vagin* in female
(4) Cervix in male and vagin* in female

169.

What is true for surgical methods?
I. Also called sterilization
II. Terminal method of contraception
III. Block gamete transport
IV. Called vasectomy in females and tubectomy in males
V. High reversibility and contraceptive efficiency
1. I, II, III, IV
2. I, II, III, V
3. I, II, III, IV, V
4. I, II, III

170.

Spermiation is

(1) Release of sperms from seminiferous tubules
(2) Release of secondary spermatocyte from seminiferous tubules
(3) Release of spermatids from seminiferous tubules
(4) Release of spermatogenic from seminiferous tubules

171. After a sperm has penetrated an ovum,
1. Completion of mitosis I occurs
2. Formation of first polar body takes place
3. Completion of meiosis I occurs
4. Completion of meiosis II occurs

172.

An antrum is a fluid-filled cavity seen in:
1. Primordial follicle
2. Primary follicle
3. Secondary follicle
4. Tertiary follicle

173.

Identify the wrong statement from the following:

1.High levels of estrogen trigger the ovulatory surge.
2.Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty onwards,
3.Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are poorly motile/ non-motile.
4.Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.

174.

Match List-I with List-II

List-IList-II
(a)Vaults(i)Entry of sperm through the Cervix is blocked
(b)IUDs(ii)Removal of Vas deferens
(c)Vasectomy(iii)Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus
(d)Tubectomy(iv)Removal of the fallopian tube


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(ii)(iv)(iii)(i)
2.(iii)(i)(iv)(ii)
3.(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)
4.(i)(iii)(ii)(iv)

175.

The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?
1. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
2. Intra UterineInsemination (IUI)
3.Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
4. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)

176. The figure shows a section of the human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of A and B with function/characteristic:
Custom Practice Test - 23-Jun (9)

1.B - Corpus luteum - secretes progesterone
2.A - Tertiary follicle - forms Graafian follicle
3.B - Corpus luteum - secretes LH
4.A - Primary oocyte - it is the prophase - I of the meiotic division

177.

Which of the following cells completes the first meiotic division leading to formation of two equal haploid cellls?
1.Spermatogonium
2.Primary spermatocyte
3.Secondaryspermatocyte
4.Spermatid

178.

What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
1. Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
2. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
3. Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
4. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa

179.

In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into
the fallopian tube?
1. Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
2. Either zygote or early embryo upto8 cell stage
3. Embryo of 32 cell stage
4. Zygote only

180.

Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to maximum period of:
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 12 months

181. Given below are two statements:

I:Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialized procedure ofin-vivofertilization.
II:Infertility cases due to the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female can be corrected by artificial insemination (AI)

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

182. Assertion: The tests are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: The scrotum helps in maintaining low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

183.

Natural methods for contraception work on the principle of:
1. Preventing fertilization
2. Preventing implantation
3. Preventing ovulation
4. Preventing embryo development

184. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis:

A.Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of Androgen
B.Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
C.Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
D.Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
E.Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.(E), (A), (D), (B), (C)2.(C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
3.(B), (E), (A), (C), (D)4.(D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

185.

State which is true:

I. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
II. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offspring due to defects in the female partner only
III. Complete lactation could help in contraception
IV. Creating awareness can help create a reproductively healthy society
1. I, III, IV
2. I, II, III
3. II, III
4. III, IV

Biology-II-Section-B

186. A couple is planning to take the help of ART to have children. The wife is normal and healthy and wants in vivo fertilisation. The husband has low sperm count in his ejacul*te. They proceed with the ART and the woman gets pregnant. The procedure they underwent is ‘X’. Which option from the following can be ‘X’?
1. ICSI or AI
2. GIFT or IUI
3. IUT or IUI
4. AI or IUI

187. In India, population crossed 1.2 billion mark in May 2011. The probable reasons for this are, decline in
(A) Maternal mortality rate (MMR)
(B) Infant mortality rate (IMR)
(C) Number of people in reproducing age
(D) Death rate
1. A and B only
2. A, B and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D

188.

Lactational amenorrhea method of contraception is based on the fact that:

1.Ovulation and menstrual flow does not occur post conception during intense lactation
2.The cervix mucus becomes hostile to sperms after parturition during intense lactation
3.Ovulation and menstrual flow does not occur post-partum during intense lactation
4.The endometrium is reabsorbed rather than sloughed off during intense lactation

189.

What is released at ovulation?

(1) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
(2) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
(3) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
(4) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

190. Read the following statements
(a) Medical termination of pregnancy during second trimester is always safe
(b) The test-tube baby programme include zygote intrafallopian transfer technique
(c) The females who cannot produce ovum are recommended for gamete intra-fallopian transfer technique
(d) Copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices release Cu ions for increased phagocytosis of sperms
Choose the option with correct statements
1. Only (a) and (b)
2.Only (c) and (d)
3. Only (a)
4.Only (b),(c) and (d)

191.

Whatdoes RCH stand for?
1. Reproductive and Complete Health
2. Regional and Central Healthcare
3. Reproductive and Child Healthcare
4. Reproductive and Cumulative Health

192.

Match the ARTs with their description

I.Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in the laboratory.
II.Zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the oviduct.
III.Zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus.
IV.Fusion of gametes within the female.
V.Transfer of ovum from a donor to the oviduct of the recipient.
VI.Sperm is injected into the ovum in-vitro.
A. GIFTB. ZIFTC. AID. ICSI
E. IUTF. IVFG. IUIH. In-vivo fertilization

1. I - G, II - B, III - F, IV - H, V - A, VI - D
2. I - F, II - B, III - A, IV - H, V - A, VI - G
3. I - F, II - B, III - E, IV - H, V - A, VI - D
4. I - G, II - B, III - F, IV - H, V - C, VI - E

193.

What is true for "Lactational amenorrhoea"?
I. It means absence of menstruation
II. Ovulation does not occur during the lactational period
III. Chances of failure of contraception are almost nil upto six months following parturition
IV. Side effects are almost nil
V. Contraceptive efficiency reduces after the period of intense lactation
VI. It is a natural method of contraception
VII. It increases phagocytosis of sperms
(1) II, III, IV, V, VI
(2) All except VII
(3) II, III, IV, V
(4) All of the above

194.

The lligaments help ovaries to be in place

(1) To form connection with pelvic wall and uterine wall
(2) To form connection with pelvic wall
(3) To form connection with uterine wall
(4) To form connection with ovarian walls.

195.

Which of the following occur during pre ovulatory phase?
a. Formation of corpus heamorrhagicum
b. Luteal phase
c. Secretory phase
d. Follicular phase
e. Proliferative phase
1. d & e only
2. a, b & c only
3. a, b & e only
4. c & d only

196. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.Cleavage divisions in early embryonic stages are mitotic divisions.
2.Embryo with 4-8 cells is called as morula.
3.Implantation occurs at the stage of blastocyst.
4.Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and produces some hormones.

197.

Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the females. They prevent conception by following means
1. Inhibit ovulation
2. Inhibit implantation
3. After quality of cervix mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms
4. All of these

198.

The target of FSH in males is
1. Granulosa cells
2. Sertoli cells
3. Interstitial cells
4. Both (1) & (2)

199.

In the vertebrates testes, for nourishment during spermiogenesis, the spermatids get attached to
(1) Interstitial cells
(2) Sperm-mother cells
(3) Spermatocytes
(4) Sertoli cells

200. Identify the correct statement:

1.In spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed.
2.Spermatogonia are diploid and primary spermatocytes are haploid.
3.Testes descend into the scrotum after birth but before puberty while ovaries do not descend at all.
4.The Infundibulum of fallopian tube possesses fimbriae while fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
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A good number of practice tests for a well-prepared MCAT student to take would be five or six. You take three from AAMC and another three from a prep company like Next Step. If you need to go beyond that, that's fine.

Can you buy individual blueprint MCAT exams? ›

Q: Can I buy just one MCAT test or a custom bundle of tests? Every free Blueprint MCAT account comes with one free full-length practice MCAT test — create a free account here! However, you cannot create a custom bundle of MCAT practice tests.

Is Blueprint MCAT diagnostic full-length? ›

Carefully Crafted MCAT Practice

All Blueprint MCAT preparation (formerly Next Step) content, including the half-length diagnostic and full-length practice exam available in the Free Practice Account, was created by our elite content team.

Does UWorld have MCAT practice tests? ›

The UWorld MCAT QBank is perfect for students who want to practice their skills before the MCAT. It includes thousands of practice questions that cover all the topics required for the MCAT. For your reference, here are the different packages of the UWorld MCAT QBank.

Is 7 MCAT practice tests enough? ›

Is Taking Seven Practice Tests for the MCAT Enough? Yes, considering the recommended number of practice tests for the MCAT is six to ten, seven can be enough to prepare you for your test.

What is the most heavily tested subject on the MCAT? ›

The biological and biochemical sciences are the most heavily tested subjects on the MCAT.

What is the most accurate MCAT practice test? ›

The final MCAT practice exams you take before the test day should be from the AAMC. It is because AAMC full-lengths are renowned for providing the most accurate prediction of your performance on test day.

Is 3 months enough to study for MCAT? ›

Three months is the minimum amount of time most students should study for the MCAT. With just a few months before test day, you'll need to spend a good amount of time studying each week if you want to score competitively on the MCAT.

How many hours should I study for the MCAT? ›

Most people need 10–15 hours per week to study for the MCAT over a period of at least four to six months . In total, you should aim for at least 200 to 300 hours of MCAT study time.

What is the average MCAT score before studying? ›

The average MCAT score for all test-takers is 500.7. The average MCAT score for test-takers who applied to medical school for the 2023-2024 school year was 506.3. The average MCAT score for all medical school applicants who ended up enrolling was 511.7.

Is 497 a good diagnostic MCAT score? ›

According to recent AAMC data, a score above 501 will put you in the above-average category of testers. A score above 511 will make your application competitive, as that is the average MCAT score of matriculants over the last few years.

Is blueprint harder than actual MCAT? ›

Yes, Blueprint exams are typically more difficult compared to AAMC exams and the actual MCAT. Exams 6 through 10 from Blueprint are known to be notably harder than Exams 1 through 5. Expect your Blueprint test scores to be deflated by approximately 7 points.

Do schools see voided MCAT? ›

It will make it appear as though you did not take the exam. In other words, neither the test results nor the fact that you took it will be disclosed to medical schools. No marks are given for voided exams. Therefore, if you do not have any MCAT results, you will need to retake the exam to apply to medical school.

Is Kaplan or UWorld better for MCAT? ›

Verdict: Which MCAT Prep Course Wins? As noted above, if you're debating between the full Kaplan MCAT course and UWorld's Qbank, and you're here looking for some advice, go with Kaplan. It is such a superior MCAT study product that you can't even compare the two.

Is the real MCAT harder than the AAMC sample? ›

There is a lot of debate on this topic and it largely depends on who you ask. Some students find the AAMC practice exams to be more difficult than the actual MCAT, while others find them to be a good predictor of what they will see on the test day.

How often should you take practice in MCAT? ›

Two Weeks Before the MCAT

Having a solid schedule will ensure that you accomplish your goals. Plan on taking at least one, and no more than three, full-length practice MCAT exams during this time period. You should not take a full-length test in the three days leading up to your real MCAT.

Which MCAT practice test should I take first? ›

Your first practice test should be the AAMC official guide half test. It is best if you start your first test with the official questions. Many students feel the need to 'save' official questions to the end and I think this is a huge mistake.

Is it OK to take the MCAT multiple times? ›

The MCAT exam can be taken up to three times. Two consecutive-year period: The MCAT exam can be taken up to four times.

Which MCAT practice test is hardest? ›

FL5 is easily the hardest and most representative of the current MCAT given it was a 2022 test. The other FLs are from 2019 and before which is still good practice but for me personally, they don't compare to what the MCAT is currently.

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